My Grandfather (Died 1977), had a property.
My grandfather had four children (2 sons and 2 daughters). At the time
of his death, only 2 children were alive (my father and my aunt) apart
from my grandmother.
After my grandfather's death,the said house has been transferred to my
father's name (1979) in municipality records , Dakhil Kharij (Not registered in court) after the consent of my grandmother and the aunt as per the the family settlement and hence my aunt claimed my grandfathers job on compensatory ground, she has retired last year after serving 39 years.
Now we have come to know that my grandfather had purchased that property by mortgaging our ancestral agricultural land to his brothers, and after his death, my father repaid the loan to his uncles (Grandfather's Brothers). Due to this reason, the family settlement was done to get my father's name on house records as he assured of payments which he did. In good faith my father didn't get the registry done in his name legally, as my aunt was supposed to marry and leave, hence they agreed to let her have the job for her future.
My father later settled in Delhi, and my aunt, my grandmother and the
son of my other deceased aunt were living in the said property.
My father died in 1994, and after his death my grandmother asked my mother to take the ownership, which she did not at that point of time and now we want to transfer the property to my mothers name.
Now my grandmother is also no more and currently my aunt (who remained unmarried) and the son of my other deceased aunt are still living in the said property.
Taking the advantage that, none of the party to that family settlement is alive apart from her, she is claiming to have the 50% right in the said property and wants to will away her part to the deceased aunt's son.
My father has paid the amount of loan taken by my grandfather after mortgaging our ancestral land, hence it should not be considered my grandfather's self earned property, hence please help in clarifying that do my Unmarried Aunt has any share in property as she had already
agreed to transfer the property to my father in 1979, and no claim has been made till now for almost 40 years by her. And after enjoying her part of the settlement of having served the Job for 39 years as gazetted officer, she is taking advantage of the absence of parties to settlement. She has appealed in court for stay order to stop us from selling the house and divide the property with her share being 50%.
How should we go legally about the case.
Asked 10 years ago in Property Law
Religion: Hindu