We owned a property at bangalore.It belonged to my great grand father.My great grand father passed and he aquired it through his effort.My grand father has executed will as if it is self acquired and has executed sale deed without taking concents of his sons nor daughters nor submitted the will and has registered it.Can we contest?What has to be done?
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we have all clear evidence that my grand dad is not the owner of the property.It is his fathers who had self acquired the property.Will of this property not sworn in before megistrate nor registers none of my family members have signed.The transaction of thi sale took place in the year 1989 and it was then acquired by income tax for preemptive sale.Can we contest?
We owned a property at bangalore.It belonged to my great grand father.My great grand father passed and he aquired it through his effort.My grand father has executed will as if it is self acquired and has executed sale deed without taking concents of his sons nor daughters nor submitted the will and has registered it.Can we contest?What has to be done?
The property of your grand father is self-acquired property.
In such cases the owner can dispose of the property in any manner he likes for which he need not take consent for his children or other legal heirs.
So the Will in your case is very much valid and deprived legal heirs can not challenge unless it is otherwise invalid like if not properly executed or executed under force , coercion or undue influence.
Hi,
You question is not clear.Whose will you're talking about is not clear again. Be specific with your question. Will does not require registration or signature from family members.
1) when did your great grand father die?
2) was your grand father only legal heir? did your grand father have any siblings?
3) if your grand father has executed will it would take effect on his demise
4) during his lifetime if your grand father has executed sale deed you should move court to set aside sale deed on grounds that it is ancestral property
Hi madam, THe property belongs to my great grand father. My grand father has manupulated the will like done by his dad. The whole property belongs to my great grand father where in there are valid documents to prove for. My great grand dad owned this property through his father. For this property the partitions have not been made.My grand dads sister is still alive she has not got a share in the property neither my grand das sons,daughters,and us we awere minors at that point. The property was auctioned by income tax and sold on preemptive sale and without taking the family tree into considerations they have just sold it to the buyer.It is an ancestral property. My great grand father died in the year 1972. My grand father in the year 2007. The will was manipulated by my grand father as done by my great grand father and my grand dad proved that he was the owner of the property through the will.We got the will and a few documents just a few days back.My great grand dad had a son and a daughter.Son is My grand dad and daughter is still alive.Family tree was not taken into consideration at all as it is an ancestral property according to titles.Neither has my grand das sister got a partition here neither did my dad,uncle and daughters of my grand dad signed and witnessed the sale. Can we contest?I being third generation heirarchy and my dad,uncles aunts being second generation as the docs reveal my great grand dad was the owner of the property?Can we fight this case out?The property was sold by income tax through auction and as explained earlier none of the family trees signatures are sought.Please give a sound solution for this.Every question on this is involving money. The property was sold from income tax through preemptive sale.We have sufficient docs to prove that it is great grand dads property and the will is a big questionable thing.This is not partioned neither has my grand dad submitted the will to the corporation office here.Please give a reply.hope everyone have got the point.
1) if the property was sold in 1989what were other legal heirs doing for 26 years ?
2) if will was forged grand aunt should have filed suit for partition
3) it appears that legal heirs were fully aware of the sale yet did not take any steps for 26 years
4) if property was sought to be sold by auction your grand aunt and others should have moved court and obtained a stay from high court
5) after 26 years it is doubtful that court would grant you any reliefs
Hi All, All this was known to every legal heir few days back when we(my dad) were in the relocation these property docs was found.i feel we can knock the doors of the court any time?We were not knowing this till now and all our family members were just being very innocent i found these loopholes after long time with the reason as mentioned above.Nobody knew these facts on the property.It was only myself and dad who did a research on these papers came to know about this. If its is not partioned then,it has to be partioned now right?Whatever it may be the property with the buyer is now a stolen one,which is not authentic. It is injustice on our part where in property is not partioned.Respected lawyers please give practical replies on this. Can we fight on the same?By court of law>Entire family was stunned on seeing all these as during tht point of time nobody went in soo deep. please read the entire above thing so that there will be a crystal clear clarity.when propertuy cases as old as 150 years a re alive Y not a 26 year old one come into life.? THe property belongs to my great grand father. My grand father has manupulated the will like done by his dad. The whole property belongs to my great grand father where in there are valid documents to prove for. My great grand dad owned this property through his father. For this property the partitions have not been made.My grand dads sister is still alive she has not got a share in the property neither my grand das sons,daughters,and us we awere minors at that point. The property was auctioned by income tax and sold on preemptive sale and without taking the family tree into considerations they have just sold it to the buyer.It is an ancestral property. My great grand father died in the year 1972. My grand father in the year 2007. The will was manipulated by my grand father as done by my great grand father and my grand dad proved that he was the owner of the property through the will.We got the will and a few documents just a few days back.My great grand dad had a son and a daughter.Son is My grand dad and daughter is still alive.Family tree was not taken into consideration at all as it is an ancestral property according to titles.Neither has my grand das sister got a partition here neither did my dad,uncle and daughters of my grand dad signed and witnessed the sale. Can we contest?I being third generation heirarchy and my dad,uncles aunts being second generation as the docs reveal my great grand dad was the owner of the property?Can we fight this case out?The property was sold by income tax through auction and as explained earlier none of the family trees signatures are sought.Please give a sound solution for this.Every question on this is involving money. The property was sold from income tax through preemptive sale.We have sufficient docs to prove that it is great grand dads property and the will is a big questionable thing.This is not partioned neither has my grand dad submitted the will to the corporation office here.Please give a reply.hope everyone have got the point. Mysore maharajas property cases and a lot are in life after 100 long years.and a lot of other disputes.How can the property owner who is living there afford to stay there which is stolen literally.We were never knowing all this.None.My dad and I have exposed these realities. Please give a suitable
1) you have to explain the delay of 26 years in moving court
2)it has to mentioned that family members became aware of fraudulent sale of property only few days back
3) the issue would also be will was forged by your grand father why did your grand aunt not challenge the will ? If great grand father executed will it would be self acquired property of grand father
4) why did grand aunt not claim her share in property on her father demise
5) if family members keep on sleeping for so many years court will not grant any relief unless court is satisfied about reasons for delay in moving court
I must say that your case required minute study of al material documents and connected deed. The information supplied online is not enough to give a proper and resolute answer.
I would suggest you to meet a local lawyer with all papers.
The property purchased by your great grandfather, upon his death fell into the hands of your grandfather by the operation of a Will. This confers title to your grandfather and he becomes an absolute owner of the property. Subsequently if he had bequeathed the property through a Will or had sold some of the properties to a third person, it was his right over it to do so hence he need not obtain consent of his children to transact with the property in the manner he desired and decided to.
Once the property fell into the hands of your grandfather, it loses the nature ancestral property, therefore you cannot claim coparcenary rights in it considering it as ancestral property.
Any legal battles will ultimately result into loss, so if you can find a solution other than legal, i.e., by mutual talks involving all family members, you can hope for some respite.
From your contents here the above will be the opinion in case you need more light on it, you must consult a local lawyer with all relevant documents/papers and seek his opinion and advise in person.
Hi, There was no will given by my great grand father.Great grand father acquired this property by his own.Upon his death there was no will which was done by him in that case how can my grand father become the owner of the said property?Great grand father had a daughter (grand aunt)too at that and even now grand aunt is alive. Most importantly great grand fathers wife was alive till 1997.The will if would have done should have been done to my great grand mother how his son would get the will transfer when both great grand mother and my grand aunt when they are alive?Whatever it is the property tax was paid in the name of great grand father,however if there should have been the transfer on rights the will should have been presented at that time to get the absolute ownership?Why was the will done during the sale of the property? Please explain when great grand fathers wife was alive and her daughter too without presenting the will to the bbmp office how can Grand father claim that he is the sole owner of the property?The will needs to be submitted to the local palike office which was not done. Then if my grand dad was the sole owner of the property what was the need of fabricating the will? There should not have been any will during the transaction.The will was made and submitted during the transcation that is 1989,Why not soon after my great grand fathers death> Can anyone help with exact justification on contesting?based on all this evidences.The will had to be tranferred to my great grand fathers wife right?That was not done?And when there was an auction Why hadnt my grand aunt,tgreat grand dads wife have not signed as a witness to the will? why was it tempared?And subsequently the buyer should have got all this in notice with the sucessions,he has taken no concent on the same.When the immediate successors were alive Y cannot coparcenary rights come into picture? If all this superceeds Why was will executed in 1989 like as done in 1972?Want a resolute response from the respected lawyers in this community.Tranfer of ownership has to be done through a will which was not done.Will was not sweared in front of magistrate?If it would have been natural ownership then Why was even the need of creating will?will tampered ?and submitted during the sale?and Why was buyer negligent not to take family tree entry into considerations. The above lawyer says legal combat will result in loss.but with certain evidences here can we fight the case?partion deed was not done and my grand father was not the sole owner as other legal heirs were present alive great grand fathers wife being alive.Please give a confronting advice on the same. Flow is like this great grand father>son(my grand father)>daughter>(grand aunt alive) great grand father property titles show he was owner and he acquired it from his own effort. great grand father>alive till 1972 great grand fathers wife -alive till 1997. grand aunt alive.till date. No partition done.Why was the need to execute will like created by his father?and submitted only during the sale of the property?Is this not disputeable.Please advice sensibly.
Hi, There was no will given by my great grand father.Great grand father acquired this property by his own.Upon his death there was no will which was done by him in that case how can my grand father become the owner of the said property?Great grand father had a daughter (grand aunt)too at that and even now grand aunt is alive. Most importantly great grand fathers wife was alive till 1997.The will if would have done should have been done to my great grand mother how his son would get the will transfer when both great grand mother and my grand aunt when they are alive?Whatever it is the property tax was paid in the name of great grand father,however if there should have been the transfer on rights the will should have been presented at that time to get the absolute ownership?Why was the will done during the sale of the property? Please explain when great grand fathers wife was alive and her daughter too without presenting the will to the bbmp office how can Grand father claim that he is the sole owner of the property?The will needs to be submitted to the local palike office which was not done. Then if my grand dad was the sole owner of the property what was the need of fabricating the will? There should not have been any will during the transaction.The will was made and submitted during the transcation that is 1989,Why not soon after my great grand fathers death> Can anyone help with exact justification on contesting?based on all this evidences.The will had to be tranferred to my great grand fathers wife right?That was not done?And when there was an auction Why hadnt my grand aunt,tgreat grand dads wife have not signed as a witness to the will? why was it tempared?And subsequently the buyer should have got all this in notice with the sucessions,he has taken no concent on the same.When the immediate successors were alive Y cannot coparcenary rights come into picture? If all this superceeds Why was will executed in 1989 like as done in 1972?Want a resolute response from the respected lawyers in this community.Tranfer of ownership has to be done through a will which was not done.Will was not sweared in front of magistrate?If it would have been natural ownership then Why was even the need of creating will?will tampered ?and submitted during the sale?and Why was buyer negligent not to take family tree entry into considerations. The above lawyer says legal combat will result in loss.but with certain evidences here can we fight the case?partion deed was not done and my grand father was not the sole owner as other legal heirs were present alive great grand fathers wife being alive.Please give a confronting advice on the same. Flow is like this great grand father>son(my grand father)>daughter>(grand aunt alive) great grand father property titles show he was owner and he acquired it from his own effort. great grand father>alive till 1972 great grand fathers wife -alive till 1997. grand aunt alive.till date. No partition done.Why was the need to execute will like created by his father?and submitted only during the sale of the property?Is this not disputeable.Please advice sensibl
First of all you should mind your language while addressing a lawyer in such public forums. What do you mean by asking me to advice sensibly?, Do you think what ever advised was non-sense? You cannot misbehave with the lawyers this way, I condemn your language and approach. I will prefer to keep away from answering your question in future if you dont correct yourself.
Giving you a last chance, I would answer your question as herein under:
Your subsequent query do not extract any meaning and it appears that you are expressing only your feelings without understanding the law involved in it. All those questions raised by you can be put forth in the court during trial of the case which you intend to file and they cannot find an answer from the lawyer answering your query. For your information, a Will can be executed by a testator bequeathing his self acquired properties and the properties in which he has absolute title in favor of anyone of his choice. The fact that he has a living wife or another daughter cannot stand as an obstacle to the Will he may execute as per his choice. Law cannot question his rights. The Will shall come into force upon the death of the testator, if you suspect the Will itself, you can file a suit to declare the sale deed executed on the basis of a Will prepared under suspicious circumstances as null and void. Even then it can be contested by the grand aunt who is reportedly alive on this date, while seeking her share in the property and not beyond that.
Under the above situation, the grandfather being a legal heir of his father he has full rights to sell his share out of his father's property inherited by him after his death, therefore he becomes absolute owner of that share of property and for that sale he need not obtain consent from anyone even his children. There is no coparcenary rights to his children because as far as they are concerned it will constitute as ancestral property.
If the children of the grandfather do not have rights over the property, the grandchildren automatically disqualifies for any such right. So instead of getting confused or misunderstanding the law by reading between the lines, consult a local lawyer in person with all relevant papers and seek his advise to find some other way to retrieve the property, if possible.
1) it has to be proved that will was forged .
2) was the will attested by 2 witnesses ?
3) you had stated that as per alleged will wherein your grand father was beneficiary your father had claimed he was absolute owner of the property .
4) it is not necessary that in will great grand father make great mother a beneficiary . he could have made grand father a sole benficary of the will
5) it is not necessary that grand aunt , great grand father will should sign as witnesses
6) witness can be even a neighbor or a friend .
7) on basis of will mutation of property should have been done in favour of grand father after issue of notice to all legal heirs .
Respectedc Lawyers, On further analysis made in the same context,my great grand father who had aquired the property died in the year 1972. great grandfather(Acquired property) no will executed till his death ! ! !Had two siblings Grand dad(5 siblings everyone major at that time) grand aunt(daughter) my dad one of the siblings uncle three daughters :-- ! ! ! ! will executed as created by my great grand father in the year 1989 which was initiated during sale of property. Can we contest on partition deed as no one have got the partition in the property neither grand aunt who had to get equal partition? on the basis off will creation treating the transaction as null and void?Please clariffy.How should we go about.Can we start off with partition deed? What I feel is the entitre transaction of the sale is null and void and needs to be prooved?Please advice.Want solutions from all respected lawyers. There was no will existing till 1989 when the sale of the property was initiated.It was only in 1989 the will came into existance as if done in the year 1971. So what should be done in this case?Can we fight a case with partion deed Does this come under ancestral property?Because the property was acquired by my great grand father.During his life time there was no will created,but will did come into picture only during the sale as if created in 1971.The will has a witness of two externals my grand dads external friends. To none of my grand das siblings there was a share neither to his daughters nor sons one among the sons is my father
1) You and other legal heirs have to move court to set aside auction of property by income tax authorities
2) you have to in the suit proceedings explain delay of 26 years in moving court
3) preliminary objection would be taken by defendants that claim is barred by limitation
4) as on date there is no ancestral property . It was sold rightly or wrongly 26 years back
5) you will also have to prove will was forged
6) only if you succeed in the suit and sale is set aside and possession delivered can you partition Said property
7) suit would take years to be disposed of
8) only if you have deep pockets and can afford litigation should you file any suit
Your question itself has a legal answer in it. The property was purchased by your great grandfather and the same was sold by his son on the basis of the property bequeathed to him through a Will by your great grandfather alleged to have been executed in the year 1971 and he died in the year 1972. You also say that the Will was witnessed by two persons. How do you say that the Will was fake because it was in the year 1989 that the property was disposed based on the title acquired by your grandfather through the said Will?, what was your aunt doing at that time ? She could have protested, objected and approached the court for cancellation of the sale deed or to nullify the Will alleged to have been fabricated, whereas, the only person who had right over the intestate property then chose to remain silent, it means she has accepted the Will to be true and chose to stay away. Thus the property does not acquire the status of intestate, therefore it cannot acquire ancestral status as well, now.
In my opinion you are trying to wage a losing battle by over reading (misinterpreting) the law and its provisions in this aspect or appear to be greedy to grab the property which never belonged to you or in which you do not have any right.
The property does not comes under the heading of ancestral property. Hence claiming a share as a coparcenary rights will not be maintainable in law or facts.
1. If the property was acquired by your great grandfather from his own funds then he alone was at liberty to sell it in entirety to anyone without taking the consent of his sons or anyone else in the family.
2. Unless your grandfather was the only child of his father he had no right to sell the entire property without obtaining the consent of his siblings. The will made by him can be challenged by the other surviving heirs in the court if it has been made in a manner which deprives them of their share in the property.
1. The will was not required to be sworn before the magistrate.
2. The will made in 1989 can be challenged by the surviving heirs in the court if it has deprived them of their lawful share in the property.
1. The will can be challenged in and struck down by the court as illegal.
2. If the will is read down as illegal all the heirs would get an equal share in the property.
1. Initially you have said that your great grandfather acquired the property through his own efforts whereas in your subsequent thread you have stated that your great grandfather owned this property through his father. You must understand that these are two diametrically opposite statements carrying different legal import.
2. If the property was owned by your great grandfather then you or your father as his siblings can challenge the gift in the court on the ground that it defeats their lawful share in the property.
3. The absence of division is not a ground which placed any fetter on the right of your grandfather to make a will of the property.
1. You are again and again making statements which are contradictory. I have extracted such statements in your query "The property belongs to my great grand father. My grand father has manupulated the will like done by his dad. The whole property belongs to my great grand father where in there are valid documents to prove for. My great grand dad owned this property through his father."
If the property was acquired by your great grandfather from his father then on what basis have you in the beginning of your query claimed that the property belongs to your great grandfather? What manipulation has been done by your great grandfather? It seems that you are either confused or not able to articulate yourself.
Respected Ashish, Hearty thanks for your response.In deed very happy for the same.Please read the below draft. Yes there has been typographical error.The will was framed in the year 1989 only during the sale of the property.There was no will done by my great grand father who had two siblings one is My (grand father) second was his daughter (grand aunt). Great Grand father (Rajagopala shastry)acquired the property in bangalore on his own effort.He had not executed any will till his time of death that is in the year 1972. No partition has been made with the living heirs then that is my grand dads generation and my grand aunt.Without partition the will too was framed and sale deed was executed by my grand father without taking the concent of his siblings nor his sister(Grand aunt).Grand aunt living to this date. Will came into existence in the year 1989 when the sale of property was done which was framed by my grand father like done by his father who apparently is my great grand father.Will is found forged and it is created as if done when my great grand father was alive. The will which was found to us a few days has clear evidences of my grand father forging the signature like his dad that is my (great grand father).We did a compare of the signatures of my great grand father and my grand father who has framed the will on his behalf the signatures have suspicion and my great grand father has not executed any will during his life.It was framed by my grand father which we came to know when we studied documents only a few days back. My great grand father had two siblings 1)grand father 2)grand aunt. The living heirs of the property then and now have legally not got any share in the property as the fabricated will says""Great grand father has made the will in favour of my grand father who has all the rights in dealing with the property and as the sole owner of the property which was created by him(Grand father).Neither my grand aunt has got any share in the property nor my grand dads sons nor his daughters(my aunts) sons being my dad and uncle to there fathers that is my grand father. From what we have studied from the documents the will was definitely framed and forged like my great grand father. 1)How should we proceed with this?Hope every point is clear on the above 2)We represent third generation . Initially can we file a suite of partition?and then take out the matter of forged will to the court?None of the generation have got share in the property. Please explain on every points.Hope this draft is understanding to all the lawyers present. can we file a suite of partition.as no partition has been done,and the forged will which is present now?
1)you have to file suit to set aside sale of property on grounds that will of great grand father was forged
2) delay in moving court of 26 years has to be explained
3) only if sale of property has been set aside can you partition the property among legal heirs
First of all it is very clear that you do not understand law but insist a reply in your taste which is not legally maintainable.
Understand the things in the following lines properly"
The self acquired property of your great grandfather fell into the hands of your grandfather by the operation of a testamentary Will reported to have been executed by the testator and there upon the beneficiary sold the property to some third person as an absolute owner. The only person who had rights to object the genuineness of the Will was his sibling, i.e., your grandaunt. She never raised objections then nor till this date, therefore the execution of sale of the property acquired through operation of a Will has been admitted by the person who was the only survivor to your great grandfather to protest or make any objections to i, if any. Even otherwise she cannot object to the sale of entire property, she was entitled to only half the share in it. Therefore if she has a claim for half a share in the property, it is deemed to be an oral partition between them which clearly extinguished the term called 'ancestral'
The children of your grandfather cannot claim a share out of the share in the property that was sold by your grandfather because they do not constitute as coparceners. Thus if they are not entitled to claim a share in it, the next generation, i.e., you and your siblings sadly are not entitled to any share out of your father's so called share which was not there.
The Will whether forgery or fake cannot be disputed by you at this stage because it was enforced in the year 1989 and at that time the only person who should have objected was your grand aunt who has not done it till date and it is very badly barred by limitation.
Therefore in my opinion, you do not have anything to claim in the by gone history of the property that was owned by your great grand father which was sold by his son and legal heir very long back even when it had not acquired its ancestral status.
Do not expect lawyers to give a misleading reply just to appease you or suiting to your taste and wrong understanding of law or misinterpreting it.
Respected Ajay/ashish/devjyothi/Rajni Sinha, Want a solution for this.Mr ajay yes I agree with what You have framed. Want a solution from others too with this regard to partition and will which needs to be challenged. How can A framed will execute transactions is my query?I would require peaceful and sound responses not like the reply above which feels terrible to even read.(T Kalaiselvan). Right from day one there is negational judgements given which is becoming not a panacea to anyone. Respected lawyers please respond to the above query with the my draft which is put across. I do not know why the above lawyer repeatedly takes out negations,I in fact do not want his replies at all.Have seen his replies to the other users as well in spite of giving relief there is negations in the reply.I would wish Mr Kalaiselvan not to have a discussion here I dont see him as a relief giver at all.When others are so proffessional And find ways to help people he puts down people thinking he is a supreme constitution maker and there is always judgement. I do not want replies from him at all.The question I frame is intended to other respectable ones here.We ask for arelief there is always a judgement totally contradictory which I condemm hence would not seek any replies from Respected kaliselvan.Sincere request. would want others to help us out in what has to be done to achieve relief. The will was framed in the year 1989 only during the sale of the property.There was no will done by my great grand father who had two siblings one is My (grand father) second was his daughter (grand aunt). Great Grand father (Rajagopala shastry)acquired the property in bangalore on his own effort.He had not executed any will till his time of death that is in the year 1972. No partition has been made with the living heirs then that is my grand dads generation and my grand aunt.Without partition the will too was framed and sale deed was executed by my grand father without taking the concent of his siblings nor his sister(Grand aunt).Grand aunt living to this date. Will came into existence in the year 1989 when the sale of property was done which was framed by my grand father like done by his father who apparently is my great grand father.Will is found forged and it is created as if done when my great grand father was alive. The will which was found to us a few days has clear evidences of my grand father forging the signature like his dad that is my (great grand father).We did a compare of the signatures of my great grand father and my grand father who has framed the will on his behalf the signatures have suspicion and my great grand father has not executed any will during his life.It was framed by my grand father which we came to know when we studied documents only a few days back. My great grand father had two siblings 1)grand father 2)grand aunt. The living heirs of the property then and now have legally not got any share in the property as the fabricated will says""Great grand father has made the will in favour of my grand father who has all the rights in dealing with the property and as the sole owner of the property which was created by him(Grand father).Neither my grand aunt has got any share in the property nor my grand dads sons nor his daughters(my aunts) sons being my dad and uncle to there fathers that is my grand father. From what we have studied from the documents the will was definitely framed and forged like my great grand father. 1)How should we proceed with this?Hope every point is clear on the above 2)We represent third generation . Initially can we file a suite of partition?and then take out the matter of forged will to the court?None of the generation have got share in the property. Please explain on every points.Hope this draft is understanding to all the lawyers present. can we file a suite of partition.as no partition has been done,and the forged will which is present now?
1) your grand aunt and others should first file a suit to set aside sale of the property on the grounds that grand father had no powers to sell the property on basis of forged will .
2) in the event you file suit for partition only court will raise the issue as to whether you have challenged the sale of property in 1989 and the forged will of your great grand father .
3) in the suit for partition filed by you to claim your share you should seek declaration that sale of property is null and void and seek permanent injunction restraining purchasers from creating third party rights in respect of plaintiff share of properties
1. You have stated that the will was made when the property was sold in 1989. This cannot be accepted on the face value as after the sale of the property the seller ceases to be the owner of it. Unless the testator is the owner of the property he cannot will it. The will cannot be valid for time subsequent to the sale by your grandfather.
2. You have stated "Will came into existence in the year 1989 when the sale of property was done which was framed by my grand father like done by his father who apparently is my great grand father.Will is found forged and it is created as if done when my great grand father was alive." It seems that what you want to convey is that your grandfather forged the will of your great grandfather to inherit his property and then sold it, but due to improper use of words by you, such as referring to your grandfather as the sibling of your great grandfather, it became confounding throughout.
3. Has the will been probated? Has the will been registered?
4. Any of the legal heirs of your great grandfather can, subject to the answers to the above questions, move to court and file for partition to cull out his/her share on the ground that it is not a free disposition by your great grandfather.
A prosecution for forgery could have been initiated only against your grandfather who is since deceased.
1. The will of your great grandfather, which according to you has been forged by your grandfather, has to be challenged.
2. The will does not become illegal merely because the partition had not been made. The only legal ground on which you can challenge the will is that it is a product of forgery committed by your grandfather.
3. Any one in the second, third or fourth generation (including you) is at liberty to file for partition to cull out his/her share in the property.
4. Do not delay moving to court as there is already a delay of more than 25 years which may impair your legal claim in the court in as much as you have to impeach third party rights.
I wish I refrain from answering the adamant queryist anymore to his queries.