MY father had a verbal agreement with my uncle about the property he had in Newyork state in 1992 the agreement was to purchase a vacant lot under my uncle name in Pakistan which in that time the lot cost 150k my dad paid the 150k in 1996 complete , the person he bought it from was located in Canada he spend his time driving yellow cab trying to pay off the vacant lot we have the reciepts of the payments and deposits but not all of them because it's been a while and some were lost ,the agreement was my dad purchase this vacant lot in Pakistan and that my uncle will give him the deeds to the property located in Newyork also another note my dad also paid half of the mortgage of the two homes but he signed under his brother name in that time the properties cost 75k each when he bought it ,so it was basically equal my dad trusted my uncle for over 24 years he had paid all the water bills as well as the property tax for all those years , and any problem with the house such as windows bathroom everything he paid , he also sent money to my uncle when ever he needed some he also has proof of that , he also purchase all his plane tickets to visit Newyork , he always agreed to put the property under his name but after my dad had told him the value of the property went up his mind set changed now he wants to sell the properties after all the years of renovation and fixing money sent and he dosnt want to put it on his name . Mind you my uncle lost all his properties he owned before because he had 5 kids and didn't want to support them so he ran to Pakistan to live for ever but those were the only two properties that my dad took place in fixing and wanted and it was a agreement . What can be done to obtain the deeds and also what cost do you think a case like this will go for ? Is they're a case and can it be accepted by the court?
Asked 8 years ago in Property Law
Religion: Muslim
