Subject: Legal Query Regarding Property Transaction

Basic Information: 1. Real Owner (M/s GILLCO): The rightful owner of the property. 2. Claimant (Person X): Paid the full amount to the real owner earlier and holds an affidavit stating the payment was full and final. 3. Purchaser (Myself): Now acquiring the property from the real owner. Transaction Details: Person X had earlier made full payment to the real owner for the property and holds an affidavit confirming this. The real owner is now executing the registry (sale deed) directly in my name. The registry states that payment has already been received by the real owner, so no additional payment is required in front of the Sub-Registrar. I am paying the agreed amount to Person X (not directly to the real owner). Person X is returning the "full and final payment affidavit" to the real owner during this process. Questions: 1. Is the registry legally valid when I, as the purchaser, have not directly paid any amount to the real owner? 2. Could this arrangement create any legal complications in the future regarding ownership or payment disputes? 3. Does the real owner accepting the return of the affidavit and conducting the registry directly in my name absolve me of any future claims from Person X or others? 4. Should I obtain any additional documents or agreements from either Person X or the real owner to safeguard my ownership and legal rights? 5. Is there a risk of this transaction being challenged legally due to the lack of direct payment from me to the real owner? 6. What specific steps can I take to ensure that the property title is clear and unchallengeable? Your insights on the legal soundness of this transaction and any precautions I should take would be greatly appreciated.