Homosexuality/bisexuality and divorce

If someone comes to know about one's sexual orientation after marriage and is no more interested in getting intimate with his spouse then can it be termed as deceiving the other party or will it be considered as crime by court (if case goes to court)? Actually I got married recently and after my marriage I was not at all interested in my so-called wife. Before marriage I was aware of my sexual orientation but not sure because I never had any kind of relationship before marriage be it with guy or girl. However I had feelings for a guy and a girl both so I was unsure. And only on the basis of my feelings I thought I was gay/bi and only after marriage I was 100% sure of my sexual orientation. But now the girls' parents are saying we deceived them but that is not the case because I never told anyone (including my parents) about my sexual orientation because I was myself not 100% sure and thought it could be just a phase and everything will be okay after marriage. So now they understood that my parents did not know. But now they are demanding the amount of money which they spent on their daughter's wedding and which is way more than what they are actually capable of spending and also demanding to me to give half of my salary to girl until she gets married elsewhere. The girl earns as much as I do but they have their own notions of right and wrong and are saying its all my fault so it must pinch me too. So it is now sure that we will go to court because we told them you cannot decide everything, court will decide what and who is right and wrong. The main point here is they are asking for divorce and not us. And it is also well known fact that many gays and lesbians chose to continue with their fake marriage and even have children. But they are adamant on divorce because they want such a man for their sex hungry daughter who will keep her pleased all the time. And whatever I have heard of such cases the party which asks for divorce is the one who is liable to pay because they are breaking the marriage. But they are doing the opposite. So what I want to know here is if we go to court and this sexual orientation thing comes out (which it will) who will be liable to pay and how much?